This page is about all of the things I learned about the CC, and some unanswered questions I had along the way
If n
is a Natural that when tripled and incremented becomes a power of 2 then it’s of the form 3n + 1 = 2^m
, thus equivalent to n = M(m) / 3
, implying M(m) mod 3 = 0
.
Therefore m = 2k
for some int k, because bitlen(3) = 2
(where bitlen(x) := ilb(x) + 1
), so n = (2^(2k) - 1) / 3
. There is a generalized theorem that explains why M(2k) mod M(2) = 0
, and I don’t remember where’s the proof. However, there is proof for the following theorem: gcd(M(n), M(m)) = M(gcd(n, m))
This means that 3n+1
is a perfect square power of 2, because it has an even count of trailing zeros in binary.
n
would look like ...10101
in binary. Remember that 3x = 2x+x
for all Real x
. Here’s a “visual proof” of the previous paragraphs:
10101 << 1
= 101010101010 ^ 10101
= 101010 | 10101
= 111111 = M(110)1 << 110
According to this, (if I understood correctly) an int of the form 2^a + n
, where n
is a number already checked and 2^a >= n
, could be discarded if the length of the hailstone sequence of n
is short enough to preserve at least 1 of the zeros of the most significant slice (the zeros that were added by the power of 2).
So a numeral like 0b10000000000000011
can be immediately discarded (not a counter-example candidate) because the hailstone length of 3 (0b11
) is small, however a numeral like 0b10111
must be checked because the hailstone length of 7 (0b111
) is too long to preserve the only 0
available.
Let f
be the “shortcut” Collatz function. Does the following limit converge for some unknown x?
lim n->∞ f^(n+1)(x) / f^n(x)
Is it irrational? If so, is it transcendental?
For all practical purposes, it’s guaranteed to be true, but that’s boring because nothing has changed. So what’s so interesting about it being false? There are 2 types of counter-examples:
If there are 2 ints n>4 & k>1, such that C^k(n) = n (where C^k is the Collatz function repeatedly applied k times), then there’s a cycle that hasn’t been discovered yet. Keep in mind, every number in the cycle would satisfy that equation, so we usually imply to find the smallest n that satisfies it.
The interesting thing is that, since cycles can’t diverge, there may be more than 1 of such cycles, and we may never know.
If there’s a n such that C^k(n) < C^(k+1)(n) for all k, then n diverges to +♾️. Again, just like the cycle, finding the minimal n is implied, as there would be infinite solutions.
This case is interesting because, unlike the cycle, we (maybe just me?) can infer more information about the properties of this value:
If we take a heuristic/statistical POV, this is impossible. But let’s assume it is.
Thanks to the power of algebra™, we can pretend to do arithmetic with such a value. Let’s call it ç, for short:
That’s about it 🤷♂. I couldn’t think of more examples. And even if there were more examples, it wouldn’t be a very useful number anyways, at least in the context of arithmetic.
Perhaps it could find practical use with respect to primes? Maybe it’s the key to proving RH?